Odpovědi na apologetiku: Mohamed a Aiša: Difference between revisions

====If Muhammad was a pedophile, then so is the Christian god for impregnating Mary====

Ignoring the fact that a pedophile by its very definition means someone who is sexually attracted to pre-pubescent children,<ref name="DSM-IV-TR">According to the most stringent clinical definition of pedophilia, the [[Aisha_Age_of_Consummation#Pedophilia_according_to_DSM-IV-TR|DSM-IV-TR]], a pedophile is someone who (1) over a period of at least six months, has had recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger). (2) has acted on these sexual urges, or the sexual urges or fantasies have caused marked distress or interpersonal difficulties. (3) is at least aged 16 years and at least 5 years older than the child or children in Criterion 1. Note: This does not include an individual in late adolescence involved in an ongoing sexual relationship with a 12- or 13-year-old.</ref> so a teenager of child-bearing age is not pre-pubescent, it has already been shown in a [[#Mary married 90-year-old Joseph when she was only 12, so Joseph was a pedophile too|previous section]] that there is no authoritative Christian text which state Mary's age. Claims about her age are, at best, educated guesses, but guesses none-the-less.  

Additionally, the apocryphal literature (the Christian equivalent of [[List of Fabricated Hadith|weak or fabricated hadith]]) used to gather information on Mary's possible age actually reveal she may have been 16 at the time of her marriage, not 12.  

Even if we were to assume she was 12 at the time, there still remain several problems with this claim.

According to the Bible, Mary became with child by "the power of the Highest",<ref>"''And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.''" - Luke 1:35 ([http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Luke+1%3A35&version=KJV King James Version])</ref> a phrase that does not, or does not necessarily, correspond to Mary being "impregnated."

Even if we do accept that the Christian god "impregnated" Mary, both Christians and Muslims believe God is omnipotent. Therefore sexual intercourse, something which would have to take place if we were to accept this claim, is not necessary in order to achieve this. For example, [[W:Artificial_insemination|artificial insemination]] needs no sexual intercourse. If humans can create a method to impregnate people without the need for sexual intercourse, why can an omnipotent deity not do the same? Of course, from an omnipotent entity, this would not need to be a physical procedure, nor would there be a need for the hymen to be torn.

Muslims also believe in the virgin birth. So, if Muslims insist the Christian god must have had sex with Mary in order to have a son, it is tantamount to an admission that, according to Islam, Allah must have also had sex with Mary in order for her to conceive Jesus.

In short; the Christian text do not mention anything of a sexual nature, i.e. there was no penis or any other indicator suggesting a sexual experience. Clearly, if there was no physical contact involved, then there was no sexual contact. Without this much needed sexual contact, there is no pedophilia.  

Conversely, the Qur'an explicitly tells us Allah (or Gabriel if we refer to the tafsir text) [[Allah and Marys Vagina|blew into Mary's vagina]] in order for her to conceive Jesus.