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The first verse above states that the purpose is to hide women's [[beauty]] from men. The second verse makes it clear that it is to prevent molestation/harassment whilst traveling. We also do not find any such requirement for Muslim men. Why is this? What are the possible explanations for this? | The first verse above states that the purpose is to hide women's [[beauty]] from men. The second verse makes it clear that it is to prevent molestation/harassment whilst traveling. We also do not find any such requirement for Muslim men. Why is this? What are the possible explanations for this? Men don't need protection like women. A woman isn't going to sexually harass a man. | ||
The current perception in Islamic society is that an unveiled woman is asking to be sexually harassed or assaulted. Although not a guarantee, they believe that the wearing of a veil is added protection against the chance of assault. However as we look at the ahadith, we find that ''none'' of the above reasons are correct as we see when studying the revelational circumstances of these verses. The Hijab verses were sent down in response to a specific situation occurring at the time. | The current perception in Islamic society is that an unveiled woman is asking to be sexually harassed or assaulted. Although not a guarantee, they believe that the wearing of a veil is added protection against the chance of assault. However as we look at the ahadith, we find that ''none'' of the above reasons are correct as we see when studying the revelational circumstances of these verses. The Hijab verses were sent down in response to a specific situation occurring at the time. |
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