Corruption of Previous Scriptures: Difference between revisions

We see no such wording in the language of the Qur'an; only evidence that Muhammad thought the Jews were lying about what was written in their Taurat, in order to reject him as a prophet of their God.  

== What does the Qur'an confirm? ==

(a) The Jews were literate - they knew their scriptures; they 'threw the book of Allah behind their backs as if they knew nothing." How could they know the book of Allah if it was corrupted?<BR>

(b) That The Jews and Christians both had intact (alleged) revelations from Allah when the Qur'an was revealed. Since we have manuscripts that pre-date Muhammad's time, that are the same as the Bible we have today, then we can conclude that the scriptures that we have today are the same as they were in Muhammad's time.

== Was Allah referring to both the Taurat and Injil? ==

Confirmed in the above Qur'an verses is the fact that Allah claims to have revealed both the Taurat (to Musa) and Injil (to Isa). Qur'an 5:47 confirms also that the Injil was intact during Muhammad's time, when it says "and the followers of the Injeel should have judged by what Allah revealed in it". This shows, that, in order to judge Muhammad's truthfulness on his prophetic claim, the Christians should have gone to the Injil which they ''had with them'' in order to 'confirm' his claim. Allah is inferring that their scripture, as well as that of the Jews, is uncorrupted.  

== Qur'an 2:79 in Context ==

It is most likely that Qur'an 2:78-79 is referring to the people who took up this challenge to produce a surah like it. However, since the Qur'an does not elaborate, we can only say for certainty that it is ''not'' referring to the Jews and Christians.

== Conclusion ==

{{ quote | {{Quran|21|7}}|And We did not send before you any but men to whom We sent revelation, '''so ask the followers of the reminder''' if you do not}}

'''Therefore Qur'an 2:79 is not referring to the previous scriptures'''

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