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→Quran 4:16
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I found the Arabic versions of the tafsirs, and what I concluded is that most of the scholars (even the ones you mentioned) don't know certainly if it was meant for 2 men or a man and woman although some of them believe one of the meanings is more suitable than the other. For example, Tafsir Ibn Al-Jalalayn that you brought up talks about the 2 possibilities and then says that the 2nd possibility of the meaning being 2 men is more suitable because the pronoun used is for masculine. But I'll tell you that in Arabic if you want to refer to a group of people containing both men and women, you use the masculine pronoun, so it isn't a decisive clue that "2 men" is the meaning here. And I say again that the word "men" wasn't mentioned even once in this verse, so if someone, while translating, understands it from the meaning and it's not written, he should write it within parentheses (if he's sure) like what Ahmad Ali did. As for Tafsir Ibn-Kathir, he put up 3 possibilities of what the meaning would be, one of which means 2 men. The other tafsirs are mostly the same as these 2.--[[User:Nightmare140|Nightmare140]] ([[User talk:Nightmare140|talk]]) 03:35, 30 May 2014 (PDT) | I found the Arabic versions of the tafsirs, and what I concluded is that most of the scholars (even the ones you mentioned) don't know certainly if it was meant for 2 men or a man and woman although some of them believe one of the meanings is more suitable than the other. For example, Tafsir Ibn Al-Jalalayn that you brought up talks about the 2 possibilities and then says that the 2nd possibility of the meaning being 2 men is more suitable because the pronoun used is for masculine. But I'll tell you that in Arabic if you want to refer to a group of people containing both men and women, you use the masculine pronoun, so it isn't a decisive clue that "2 men" is the meaning here. And I say again that the word "men" wasn't mentioned even once in this verse, so if someone, while translating, understands it from the meaning and it's not written, he should write it within parentheses (if he's sure) like what Ahmad Ali did. As for Tafsir Ibn-Kathir, he put up 3 possibilities of what the meaning would be, one of which means 2 men. The other tafsirs are mostly the same as these 2.--[[User:Nightmare140|Nightmare140]] ([[User talk:Nightmare140|talk]]) 03:35, 30 May 2014 (PDT) | ||
:This just proves again how false the Quran is when it makes the claim of being in detail and that "Nothing have we omitted from the Book". A lot has been omitted from the book and a lot is unclear and could have been written in a more clear way. [http://wikiislam.net/wiki/Lack_of_Detail_in_the_Quran#Claims_of_Detail] | |||
:So indeed: | |||
::''Tafsir Ibn Al-Jalalayn that you brought up talks about the 2 possibilities and then says that the 2nd possibility of the meaning being 2 men is more suitable'' | |||
:It is two men. As for your analysis, again what the two Tafsirs say overrides what you say. "Two men" may not have been mentioned but as the Tafsir says its ''most likely'' two men that the Quran is referring to. | |||
:Once again I ask you for the 3rd time: Do you think the "two men" version of 4:16 goes against what has been said about the topic in other locations? --[[User:Axius|Axius]] <span style="font-size:88%">([[User_talk:Axius|talk]] <nowiki>|</nowiki> [[Special:Contributions/Axius|contribs]])</span> 04:25, 30 May 2014 (PDT) | |||